I think I need to clarify here.  First, I am a title agent, not an abstactor.  The deed that I presented is a deed that I will be putting on record after closing. My concern is that I am in receipt of a deed that has clearly been pre-signed by the attorney and I know for a certain fact, based on this copy, that the notary will place his/her seal and date the document prior to the delivery of the original to me. I can only assume that the notary did not witness the signature.  Is that not a clear case of a document that has been at the very least pre-signed and at worst, a possible case of robo-signing?  Am I overthinking this?

The point I was trying to make, and clearly I failed to do so, was that even with the supposed oversight and new guidelines having been issued from servicing lenders, Fannie, Freddie, etc., the mills continue to behave as though nothing has changed.