This was posted as a Blog, but it I believe it is a general question that is more suited to a Forum Post.
I have contracted to a peice of land, the realtor says the seller will not sell to me unless I use his title company, I was expecting this(know a little more about this title history and this seller), this is the only condition ending this transaction. Is the realtor (who is x-remely inexperienced anyway liable for this, as I have sent him the Section 9 of Respa regulations. He says so what, you don't have a deal, do it our way or get lost.
Posted by: Cynthia Heed
The following was posted as a comment.
Looks like you might have hit paydirt:
Section 9: Seller required title insurance
Section 9 of RESPA prohibits a seller from requiring the home buyer to use a particular title insurance company, either directly or indirectly, as a condition of sale. Buyers may sue a seller who violates this provision for an amount equal to three times all charges made for the title insurance.
and:
Civil law suits
Individuals have one (1) year to bring a private law suit to enforce violations of Section 8 or 9. A person may bring an action for violations of Section 6 within three years. Lawsuits for violations of Section 6, 8, or 9 may be brought in any federal district court in the district in which the property is located or where the violation is alleged to have occurred.
HUD, a State Attorney General or State insurance commissioner may bring an injunctive action to enforce violations of Section 6, 8 or 9 of RESPA within three (3) years.
Best of luck- the rules are in your favor, that's for sure- these unscrupulous people are in for a long ride , I think!! ( I wonder which classes they missed when getting their licenses?)
Posted by: Steve Meinecke
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