I'm no lawyer and am not even sure if my theory is correct in Alix's scenario but in the case of my theory no, a person can't be "forced" to sign a note. In the instance where someone agrees to sign a note for a mortgage to remove the lien from a property it is done to facilitate a short sale which while bad on your credit is not "as" bad as a full foreclosure or bankruptcy should the mortgage holder come after the person for the difference in the event of foreclosure.